Orthodykes FAQ
So... I run the Orthodykes.org website. Several years ago, I started putting together a FAQ on the halakhic issues, but I never really got around to finishing it. Until just recently. So anyone who is interested can stop by at http://www.orthodykes.org/faq.html and read/comment.
posted by Lisa | 9:41 AM
2 Comments:
Looking at what you wrote, I see a couple of things that appear to be missing. (I found this site by a reference from wikipedia; thank you for your testimony about R. G.)
The first could be taken either way, probably in your favor. That is, that the prohibition on intermarriage, as described in the Shulchan Aruch, appears to refer specfically to sexual activity, apparantly following the Rambam's idea that only consummation creates a marriage among non-Jews. This is important since the source refers to Egyptians before Matan Torah.
The second goes the other way. You state that kirvah only applies to Ervah. But the Rambam, Isuraei Biah 21/3 (one chapter after your quote, if I misremember the number) says that it applies to chaivei lavin, also, kirvah, and harchokon, and everything else.
Perhaps you can differentiate between sexual offenses and non-sexual ones, or even where most people do not have desire (as R.G does) - I'm not so sure. This, I think, is where Rabbis come in.
If I may respectfully add to the above. I don't know if anyone should be stigmatized, even if they commit serious offenses like Mishkav Zochor or intermarriage. But I would think that certain behavior should be stigmatized, that is that it should not be accepted as legitimate within the community. (What someone does behind closed doors is between her and her rabbi - no jokes please!)
Given that the original source is referring to marriage, can we be so sure that other marriage-like activities are permitted or should be condoned? This seems to be a halachic question for a high-level posek.
I have seen two "fences" come down in general society during my life - that of premarital and that of intermarriage. Now the fence against Mishkav Zochor and Ma'aseh Mitzrayim (defined in the original medrash as same-sex marriage, male and female) is coming down. I am not so sure that public policy is not the responsibility of individual people such as myself, also.
If someone's Rabbi agrees with the Ra'avad and permits him to have a Pilegesh (remember the embarassing business several years back), should we accept him and his concubine as a couple? If a man violates nothing, but intentionally does something (no idea) that identifies him with the GLBT agenda, should we accept that?
Anyway, this is my opinon. People more learned than me need to decide these things.
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